Can anyone here explain this to me? This is a paragraph called "Waw consecutive with the Perfect in Hebrew"
"The specific syntactical uses ordinarily given for perfect and imperfect without waw consecutive are accepted by the writer, although with some differences in the explanation of their origin, with the addition of a limited perfect of experience, along with the unlimited use generally recognized, which is sometimes to be translated by a present, more by a past.
The waw consecutive with the imperfect is always distinguished from the waw conjunctive by a distinct form of the conjunction, from which fact result changes in ..."
Quote from site:www.jstor.org/stable
I can hardly to understand the text. English is not my native language.
What does mean: "are accepted by the writer"
Does it mean, that if consecutive waw is not present the writer uses perfect as past and imperfect as futur? And how can I recognize the difference between cons. and conj. waw?
Now I am reading Isaiah 29:18 ( biblehub.com/text/isaiah/29-18.htm ) and the first word is wəšámə'ú.
I can transliterate the two verses from 29:17 to 29:18
haló'-'ód me'at miz'ár - wešáv levánón lakkarmel wehakkarmel layya'ar yéchášév
wešámə'ú vayyóm-hahú hachérəším divré-séfer - úmé'ófel úméchóšex - éné iwrím tir'éná(h)
On biblehub.com/text/ I read that there is conj. perf. and I don't know why this is conj. and not cons.